The house is in contract but the buyer’s attorney is insisting on obtaining a letter of no objection from the seller. The two-family house doesn’t have a certificate of occupancy but the attorney did some digging and found that it was assessed as a single family in the 1930s. The seller is not willing to provide the letter of no objections. Is this issue really worth jeopardizing the deal?
Please chime in with your advice.
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