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March 5, 2008
Zoned for Incorrect Number of Families
Hello all. I have a question about closing on a property and zoning for a certain number of families. What happens when a property is sold that is zoned for a certain number of families but is being used for a different number of families (i.e. zoned for 3 being used as 4). Does the seller need to update the zoning prior to close or does it no matter? I am looking at older early 20th Century houses if that matters. Thanks in advance!
Comments
Your use of a property cannot legally exceed the certificate of occupancy without seeking to ammend it. You might want to look through the archives to see why there is a big difference between 3 or less and 4 or more in terms of financing, taxation, etc. A bank would probably demand that the property be made compliant to the C/O prior to close - usually pulling out the fourth kitchen. BTW "zoned" refers to what overall use a property may have - residential, commercial, industrial, etc - and isn't really what you mean here.
Posted by: Putnamdenizen at March 5, 2008 12:46 PM

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